In gaining power in Germany prior to WWII, Hitler took advantage of which one of the results of WWI?

Same people seem to think that post WW1 Germany was a harmonious society It was not. The Weimar republic was failing, not due to Hitler, but due to right wing political fraction, in fact Hitler played a very small roll in German politics at the time. As he aspired to political power he did use the humiliation of the Versailles treaty to unite the German people, this was not difficult as the Versailles treaty was the reason for their poverty. The poverty of the German nation was clearly explained by one of the Versailles negotiators, Keynes. Keynes left the Versailles negotiation table in protest against the terms that the victors were going to forcing upon the Germans, saying that the treaty was a "recipe for war" he was right! The book that Keynes wrote on the subject after the treaty came into force, was frequently use by Hitler to justify his argument of totally ignoring the treaty, which the Germans did, by rearming. So one of the primary factors in Hitler favour was the the treaty of Versailles and the treaties total suppression of the German peoples. The treaty was a treaty of vengeance, as it is now viewed as being very doubtful that the Germans actually started the war (WW1).